A statement made by Maryam the mother of Jesus in the Quran

The following is a response given to a student by Ustadh Nabeel Alkhalidy

Q. Salamu alaikum

I have a question if you have time to answer it inshallah.
Verse 20 of Surah Maryam, Allah mentioned that Maryam  said: "No man has touched me nor am I unchaste.

I'm wondering why Allah used 2 things that are actually the SAME here. Because if à man never touched her then this automatically means she is not unchaste. What's THE difference between these words?



A. Wa alaykum asalam

Maryam says:

قَالَتْ أَنَّىٰ يَكُونُ لِي غُلَامٌ وَلَمْ يَمْسَسْنِي بَشَرٌ وَلَمْ أَكُ بَغِيًّا

She said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?"

"No man has touched me" is a general negation of any relation with a man.

" nor am I unchaste" is not a good translation

بَغِيًّا = prostitute. it comes from a root meaning to exceed proper bounds to the maximum level.

"nor am I a بَغِيًّا " was said to indicate her fear of being accused of this evil. Her fear was well warranted because her people did exactly that.

19:28  O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother a بَغِيًّا."

and Allah saved her from this grave accusation by making Isa (Alayhi a-salam) speak to her people.

Wa Allahu A'lam

Nabeel Alkhalidy